IBSC Tactical Paramedic Certification (TP-C) Practice Exam

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• What is the primary needle decompression site?
• Spinal shock is characterized by what?
• Which of the following is listed as a TEC/TFC treatment?
• Which statement is NOT part of the blast triad?
• Whose guidance defines the scope of practice for medics?
• Which IO size is used for pediatric patients?
• In managing an active seizure, what is the immediate priority?
• Which area is addressed by junctional hemorrhage management in the axilla and inguinal fold?
• What is the recommended initial management for Crush Syndrome?
• Gastrointestinal blast injuries typically present with which symptoms?
• Which tool is listed for junctional hemorrhage management in the axilla and inguinal fold?
• Celox Gauze functions by which mechanism?
• Trousseau's sign is forearm tetany after blood pressure cuff is inflated for 2-3 minutes.
• Which therapies are listed for inhalation injuries due to thermal breaching?
• Which metabolic finding is commonly associated with hypothermia?
• What information should be documented on the patient or tourniquet after tourniquet application?
• What is the maximum suction level for a chest tube?
• Which term is associated with non-permissive environments in TCCC?
• Which term describes the symptom cluster observed with chemical munition exposure?
• Airway assessment includes which of the following elements?
• Which dressing is impregnated with chitosan-based material to promote clotting?
• In the Five S's, which is a step?
• Why should venous tourniquets not be used on bleeds?
• When is best to apply a chest seal?
• For penetrating chest trauma, which dressing approach is indicated?
• In gastrointestinal blast injuries, which organ is described as primary due to gas-filled vulnerability?
• In Tactical Field Care, treatments occur in which zone?
• For conscious casualty airway management, which action is emphasized as a recommended step?
• If TRALI is suspected, what is the immediate action?
• CASEVAC stands for which of the following?
• Premission Canine hydration: what is the recommended protocol?
• Which condition is associated with succinylcholine due to calcium release from cells?
• What is given to treat transfusion-related hypocalcemia?
• Advanced airway placement is confirmed by which method?
• Which IO size is used for the adult humerus?
• Symptoms of TRALI typically develop within how many hours after transfusion?
• Which statement is listed as a drainage-related benefit of the recovery position?
• What hydration finding indicates the patient needs fluids?
• What is the recommended management for non-compressible hemorrhage?
• MEDEVAC stands for?
• Which of the following is NOT listed as a pulse oximetry site for canines?
• Which area is commonly observed as pooling when bleeding continues after treatment?
• Capnography shows exhaled CO2 as numbers and a waveform. Which option correctly reflects this?
• Which route is considered the preferred route for medication administration in this protocol?
• If blood is not available for resuscitation, what is the maximum cumulative dose of Hextend?
• In a chest wound, which action is contraindicated?
• Which blast injury type causes the most blunt trauma?
• For non-tourniquet hemorrhage, which action is listed?
• Vecuronium is which type of neuromuscular blocker?
• Which vein is used for IV access in the rear leg?
• Which blast injury type accounts for most penetrating trauma?
• In Hazmat PPE Levels, which level provides full protection including a fully encapsulating suit with SCBA?
• Non-compressible hemorrhage is most commonly associated with which injuries?
• In polytrauma or torso trauma, what is the recommended treatment?
• What is the first priority in Care Under Fire (CUF)?
• Which respiration pattern is Cheyne-Stokes respiration?
• Under Care Under Fire (CUF) conditions, what is the only treatment for compressible hemorrhage?
• Any wound cavitated, actively bleeding etc. need to be ____________ to put direct pressure on the VESSELS?
• An anaphylactic transfusion reaction typically presents with which characteristic?
• What is the normal respiratory rate for a canine?
• Size 5 Supraglottic airway corresponds to which color?
• Which combination defines the Lethal Triad?
• Which drug is used in infants under 1 year during RSI to prevent bradycardia?
• Which condition is listed as a contraindication to nasopharyngeal airway use?
• Do not place IO in extremity that?
• The T4 dermatome correlates with which anatomical landmark?
• In a color-coding scheme for device status, which color indicates good performance?
• Cushings Triad includes which combination?
• Calcium gluconate helps prevent which arrhythmia in crush injuries?
• Which hypothermia stage is characterized by amnesia, difficulty talking, inability to use hands, incoherent, irrational behavior, and stupor?
• What is the primary site for canine pulse oximetry?
• Which mechanism is defined as the direct effects of the high-explosive blast wave?
• In a TCCC non-permissive situation, which term is used?
• Indirect Threat Care (ITC) is associated with which zone?
• Propofol has which hemodynamic effect?
• Direct Threat Care (DTC) is delivered in which zone during Care Under Fire?
• Which induction agent is preferred for awake sedation due to minimal changes in blood pressure and respiration?
• Which statement best describes the acidosis component of the lethal triad?
• In the Lethal Triad, which component is defined by low body temperature?
• Which statement about Canine Care during examinations is NOT recommended?
• Which statement is a sign that a wound is continuing to bleed after treatment?
• If a tourniquet is ineffective, what action should be taken?
• What is the primary treatment approach for neurogenic shock?
• Which hand-powered IO color corresponds to a Sternal IO?
• Which of the following is a potential adverse reaction to a blood transfusion?
• Why should gauze or hemostatic agents not be packed into a chest wound?
• In an overload reaction to transfusion, what is the recommended initial management?
• Which GCS range defines Minor TBI?
• Which acronym stands for chemical, biological, radiological, nuclear, and explosive threats?
• What is the maximum volume recommended for Hextend in this context?
• Non-compressible hemorrhage is typically managed with which intervention?
• Which conditions are exceptions where cardiac arrest may not be considered death?
• Celox Gauze is impregnated with which material?
• What is a downfall of the SOF-T wide tourniquet?
• What does the 9-Line MEDEVAC refer to?
• RSI stands for what in airway management?
• Severe TBI is defined by GCS score of which value?
• Febrile transfusion reactions can be caused by which mechanism?
• In the pediatric rule of nines, which region accounts for 14% of body surface area?
• Which statement about Etomidate is true?
• IT Clamp is used to do what?
• In an anaphylactic transfusion reaction, which treatment is recommended?
• In an unconscious casualty, which airway maneuver is listed as the initial step?
• Which description best represents mild hypothermia?
• Overload transfusion reactions are more likely in patients with which conditions?
• When do you open the Tactical Medical Operator Bag?
• Asphyxiation from fire is a potential outcome of blast injuries.
• Which cardiovascular response is common in early hypothermia?
• Which action corresponds to the cover officer's primary duty?
• What is an important neurological sign associated with spinal cord injury?
• Which reversal agent reverses benzodiazepines?
• A common aftermath of crush injuries is which electrolyte abnormality?
• Which action helps reduce burn progression as part of burn management?
• Which of the following is an indication for oxygen therapy?
• Which symptom is associated with a febrile transfusion reaction?
• Which step entails tube passing through cords, Capnography?
• Secondary blast injuries are characterized by which type of trauma?
• In cold weather, Mannitol precautions require use of what?
• What is a listed benefit of placing a casualty in the recovery position?
• Which statement correctly describes the cephalic vein during IV access?
• TXA is an antifibrinolytic and should be given within the first 3 hours after injury.
• When should a chest tube be placed in a chest trauma patient?
• In the Five S's, what does Segregate mean?
• Exhaled CO2 is indicated by which measurement?
• Which agent is a hypnotic with no analgesic properties?
• What is listed under Remote Assessment in the material?
• In Care Under Fire, which zone is designated as the hot zone?
• Which site is listed as a pulse oximetry site for canines that is not the primary site?
• Which item is listed as an example of Low-Order Explosives?
• The T10 dermatome corresponds to which landmark?
• Rocuronium is used after succinylcholine to maintain paralysis. What is the typical RSI dose of Rocuronium?
• Which device indicates CO2 by color change rather than numeric values?
• Duty to Warn applies to reporting of which situations?
• Transfusion Related Acute Lung Injury (TRALI) is most commonly caused by what mechanism?
• Which blood product is useful for clotting factors, has antibodies, and does not contain platelets?
• Which factor most influences the decision to perform needle decompression?
• Average adult blood volume is approximately?
• TEC zone for evacuation is Cold Zone. In TEC, which zone is used for evacuation?
• Chvostek sign is described as facial muscle twitch when tapping on which nerve?
• Exhaled CO2 is indicated by which device that displays numbers and a waveform?
• Which classification corresponds to high-order explosive devices?
• What does the term 'High and Tight' refer to in tourniquet placement?
• In inguinal bleeding within massive hemorrhage management, what is recommended?
• What is a common early physiologic sign of hypothermia?
• Which statement describes a hemothorax?
• An NPA is measured from the ear to which anatomical point?
• Which of the following actions are part of the management of Massive Hemorrhage?
• ChitoGauze is impregnated with which material?
• Below the level of injury in neurogenic shock, which skin finding is typical?
• A common complication associated with burns greater than 15% BSA is?
• Propofol should not be given to head injury patients. Which statement is true regarding this?
• In field assessment of shock, which pulse corresponds to about 80 mmHg?
• Subdural hematomas are more common and more lethal than epidural hematomas.
• Which IED type is activated remotely when the operator is in the kill zone?
• Which set lists the three components of the classic blast triad?
• Crystalloids are best used for which purpose?
• Which statement best describes compressible hemorrhage management?
• Fluid resuscitation according to the Brooke Formula is calculated as?
• How far should the needle hub be advanced during needle decompression?
• Which statement best describes the initial management of crush syndrome?
• Hemothorax is defined as more than how many milliliters of blood?
• What is the specific calcium gluconate dose used in crush injury treatment?
• Which colloid is listed as the colloid of choice for Tactical Casualty Care (TCCC)?
• Which scenario constitutes an Immediate Threat to the assaulter?
• What term is used to describe analyzing threats to medical operations in a tactical environment?
• Which blood product can be stored for up to 26 days and has never been frozen?
• Which IED is carried by a person wearing a vest?
• Which action is NOT listed as a CUF treatment?
• Which step involves 3-5 minutes of preoxygenation with 10-15 L/min oxygen?
• Which is a fundamental initial action in burn management?
• Which devices are identified as airway devices in the material?
• Which description characterizes moderate hypothermia?
• Reversing hyponatremia rapidly can cause which condition?
• Which step ensures the intubation equipment is serviceable?
• Which item is NOT part of Force Health Protection?
• Which factor is listed as an issue that can degrade medical mission function in austere environments?
• In the adult rule of nines, which region is assigned 1%?
• In the failed airway algorithm, which statement indicates the patient requires a secured airway?
• In a Vehicle & Enclosed Space Blast, which statement is true?
• Crush Syndrome occurs after which event?
• Which evacuation term is used in semi-permissive or permissive environments?
• Which major preventable cause accounts for about 6% of combat deaths?
• Which of the following is an example of a High-Order Explosive?
• Which type of bleeding is described as representing the most preventable deaths?
• Which non-human threat is identified in tactical threats?
• Pre-mission hydration should ideally be performed how long before the mission?
• If a team member is hurt, what is the advised action?
• Which step focuses on ongoing sedation and oxygenation after airway is secured?
• Which step uses capnography as part of confirming endotracheal tube placement?
• Which IO size corresponds to the adult proximal tibia?
• Which induction agent provides analgesia in addition to sedation?
• Which is an example of a High-Order Explosive?
• Which device is listed for junctional hemorrhage management?
• Combat Gauze is impregnated with which material?
• Which is the last step in the failed airway algorithm?
• Which RSI medication does not require refrigeration?
• What is the recommended oxygen flow rate when delivering oxygen to a patient in this context?
• Which respiratory pattern is commonly associated with epidural hematoma?
• Which IED is rigged in a structure to explode when friendly forces arrive?
• Which medication is commonly used as a first-line benzodiazepine for seizure control in EMS protocols?
• In the initial management of hypothermia, what is performed first?
• What is the purpose of the MIST Report?
• Secondary blast injuries are primarily caused by what mechanism?
• Which is the most preventable cause of combat death?
• Subdural hematomas typically have what onset?
• Which of the following is another primary blast injury area besides the middle ear?
• In damage control resuscitation, what is the first-line blood product strategy?
• Which drug provides sedation/anxiolysis with anterograde amnesia for induction?
• The LOAD mnemonic is used to guide actions during which RSI phase?
• Fluid resuscitation according to the Parkland Formula is calculated as?
• What does M.A.R.C.H/H stand for?
• Hazmat PPE Level D is described as providing which protection?
• Which of the following is a primary blast injury area?
• Which positioning is recommended for suspected TBI to aid venous drainage?
• Why Lactated Ringers should be avoided in Crush Syndrome management?
• In a trauma scenario, which of the following is a primary reason to remove body armor?
• When should interventions be reassessed in the field?
• Which statement about Ace wraps is true?
• According to the adult rule of nines in this material, what percentage is assigned to the neck?
• What is the first step in the seven P's of Preparing to Intubate?
• Which blood product requires ABO compatibility and can be used for up to 5 days after thawing?
• Which color corresponds to Size 4 Supraglottic airway?
• X-Stat is best described as which type of dressing?
• Which action is listed as part of slow bleeding control?
• In tactical operations, which term describes the area through which most direct fire or casualty flow is funnelled?
• In the lethal triad coagulopathy, which description is correct?
• Which color indicates a hand-powered IO suitable for Sternal IO?
• Which condition is a contraindication for Hespan and Hextend?
• What is the standard succinylcholine dose for RSI?
• What is the burping technique for a chest seal used to manage?
• In the color-code scheme, which color indicates poor status?
• When using a Bag Valve Mask on a patient with head injury, which ventilation rate is recommended?
• What is the term for the return of cold blood to the core during external rewarming?
• What is an alternate decompression site?
• What percentage of whole blood is composed of white blood cells and platelets?
• Which solution is a hypertonic therapy used to reduce intracranial pressure?
• What is the second priority in the CUF priorities list?
• Which statement best describes the neurogenic shock triad?
• Spinal shock and neurogenic shock are the same condition.
• Which sequence best describes the classic clinical presentation of an epidural hematoma?
• Succinylcholine is best described as which type of neuromuscular blocker?
• Which S involves moving detainees to the rear as soon as possible?
• Which listed complication is commonly associated with blast injuries?
• Which IED is carried by a vehicle?
• What is the normal pulse range for a canine?
• Which breathing pattern is described as shallower breaths with pauses and crescendo?
• Which action is part of the contact role of the officer?
• Which area is most commonly associated with junctional hemorrhage?
• Crystalloids are which of the following?
• An injury at or above which level commonly results in apnea or bradycardia?
• Cardiac irritability begins at what temperature during hypothermia?
• Which of the following is a sign of chemical nerve agent exposure?
• When should a detailed assessment of the patient be performed?
• Which option is NOT an airway device listed in the material?
• Subdural hematomas are caused by tearing of which structures?
• Which patient condition listed would most limit extraction in a tactical scenario?
• In a TCCC semi-permissive situation, which term applies?
• Which mnemonic is associated with RSI Pretreatment?
• What is the purpose of patient care documentation?
• In the box bleeds when in the chest, what management approach is required?
• Which is not a component of the MIST acronym?
• Which combination of symptoms is most characteristic of TRALI?
• Which statement correctly identifies the gastrointestinal involvement in blast injuries?
• Which step uses Sniffing position and towels under pts shoulders blades?
• In battlefield cardiac arrest protocols, a patient with no pulse and no ventilations is considered dead.
• Which statement describes a sucking chest wound?
• Hemothorax is typically from laceration of which artery?
• Which blood product is not feasible in a tactical environment?
• Which of the following is listed as an in-extremis extraction method?
• Which induction agent is associated with adrenal depression?
• In Tactical Operations, which element provides physical protection from enemy fire?
• In the context of less-lethal injuries, which term describes the symptoms associated with chemical exposure?
• What is listed as the first intervention for non-tourniquet hemorrhage?
• Which IED is remote detonated or commanded?
• For a patient not in shock, how should fluids be given if possible?
• Which option is NOT one of the seven P's?
• Which factor is listed as a cause of degraded nutrition or food handling in austere settings?
• The term 'In the box bleeds' indicates which management approach?
• When wound packing, which statement is most accurate?
• What is the antidotal treatment for Malignant Hyperthermia?
• Which symptom best describes mild hypothermia?
• Which step includes Neuromuscular blockade, induction agent, pain control?
• Defasciculating dose is what proportion of the paralytic dose?
• Tertiary blast injuries occur when the casualty does what?
• What does the ISR Rule of Tens specify for fluid resuscitation rate?
• Which of the following is a contraindication to succinylcholine use?
• Which is a component of Force Health Protection?
• Ace Wraps and wrapping: which width is preferred?
• What injuries are typically associated with a suicide vest IED?
• Where is a chest tube typically placed?
• Which statement about the seven P's framework is true?
• ChitoGauze initiates clotting by which mechanism?
• Which legal concept requires preserving evidence and maintaining chain of custody?
• What are the components of the MIST Report?
• What gauge and length needle is commonly used for chest decompression?
• Junctional hemorrhage when a tourniquet does not control bleeding: what is the recommended intervention?
• In CQB principles, which term is listed as a principle?
• Which of the following is a blast classification?
• Burns greater than 15% BSA typically require which initial management step?
• During needle decompression, where should the needle be inserted relative to the rib?
• What is the ordinal position of Protect and Position in the seven P's?
• Which is an example of a Low-Order Explosive?
• Which of the following is NOT a standard tourniquet application step?
• Which option best indicates the end point of fluid resuscitation?
• Which drug is used to blunt cough and decrease intracranial pressure during RSI?
• Which statement best explains acidosis in the lethal triad?
• Tertiary blast injuries commonly cause which type of trauma?
• Cricothyrotomy is contraindicated in which age group?
• Hypocalcemia during blood transfusion is primarily caused by what substance in stored blood?
• Which is an example of a High-Order Explosive?
• Which effect is associated with succinylcholine on skeletal muscle?
• Which statement best describes a hemolytic transfusion reaction?
• Which medication is used in crush injuries to help prevent ventricular fibrillation?
• Which vein is used for IV access in the front paw of a canine?
• What is the primary focus of MIST?
• Which blood product is stable for 7 years, freeze dried and being evaluated in the United States?
• Urticarial transfusion reaction is primarily caused by which mechanism?
• Combat Gauze activates which clotting factor in the clotting process?
• Which statement best describes hemostatic agents?
• Indirect Threat Care (ITC) is associated with which zone?
• The Endotracheal Tube Introducer is commonly known as which device?
• In a TCCC semi-permissive or permissive situation, which evacuation term is used?
• Which statement about blast lung is true?
• Which burn fluid resuscitation formulas use Body Surface Area (BSA) in their calculations?
• Hazmat PPE Level B is described as respiratory SCBA without full encapsulation. Which option best represents this level?
• In bag-valve-mask (BVM) ventilation, which of the following is a correct emphasis for effective ventilation?
• Which warming method is part of active internal warming?
• Which of the following is not a SLUDGEM sign?
• Hespan and Hextend are examples of what type of intravenous fluids?
• Which statement about storage of RSI medications is correct?
• Which electrolyte disturbance can succinylcholine cause?
• Is Traumatic Brain Injury (TBI) listed as an indication for oxygen therapy?
• The 4th Amendment addresses which of the following?
• Which is a common finding in hypothermia patients?
• Which IED is described as a structure-based device that detonates when responders arrive?
• Which color corresponds to Size 3 Supraglottic airway?
• How far above the wound should a tourniquet typically be placed?
• Which dermatomes innervate the diaphragm?
• Sleep inertia is defined as which of the following?
• In gastrointestinal blast injuries, the injury mechanism is due to which process?
• Which finding is commonly associated with middle ear blast injury?
• Which induction agent is considered favorable for patients in shock?
• In the context of explosive breaching, which option is NOT listed as a treatment for inhalation injuries?
• Conscious casualty airway management: which action is considered the initial step?
• In an anaphylactic transfusion reaction, what is the most appropriate immediate action?
• Which of the following is a valid IO access site?
• What percentage of whole blood is plasma?
• Which step involves Maintaining sedation, oxygenation?
• Which is NOT listed as an IO location?
• Which statement about blast injuries is true?
• If body armor has to be worn, what is the best place for IO?
• The typical arterial source of an epidural hematoma is which artery?
• Which technique confirms correct endotracheal tube placement?
• In the King LT-D device, what does the D stand for?
• Which code indicates performing a detailed assessment of the patient?
• Which major preventable cause accounts for about 33% of combat deaths?
• What is the dose of Rocuronium for RSI?
• In lethal triad coagulopathy, what is the recommended treatment?